2014年4月27日星期日

RSAの050-V66-SERCMS02認証の最優秀問題集

多くの人々は高い難度のIT認証試験に合格するのは専門の知識が必要だと思います。それは確かにそうですが、その知識を身につけることは難しくないとといわれています。IT業界ではさらに強くなるために強い専門知識が必要です。

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試験番号:050-V66-SERCMS02問題集
試験科目:RSA 「RSA Certificate Management Solution 6.6 CSE Exam」
問題と解答:全77問

なんで悩んでいるのですか。RSAの050-V66-SERCMS02認定試験にどうやって合格するかということを心配していますか。確かに、050-V66-SERCMS02認定試験に合格することは困難なことです。しかし、あまりにも心配する必要はありません。試験に準備するとき、適当な方法を利用する限り、楽に試験に合格することができないわけではないです。では、どんな方法が効果的な方法なのかわかっていますか。IT-Passports.comの050-V66-SERCMS02問題集を使用することが最善の方法の一つです。IT-Passports.comは今まで数え切れないIT認定試験の受験者を助けて、皆さんから高い評判をもらいました。この問題集はあなたの試験の一発合格を保証することができますから、安心に利用してください。

購入前にお試し,私たちの試験の質問と回答のいずれかの無料サンプルをダウンロード:http://www.it-passports.com/050-V66-SERCMS02.html

NO.1 During installation of the RSA Certificate Manager and the RSA Registration Managter, it is possible to
change the default port configurations
A. True
B. False
Answer : A

NO.2 When retrieving your certificate, you must ensure that
A. you use the same browser as when enrolled
B. the browser can support certificate description retrieval
C. the Administrator has configured you to perform IPSec transactions
D. you have a valid user account in the same domain as RSA Certificate Manager
Answer: A

RSA   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02認定資格

NO.3 When a CA has been revoked, the browser will always show that certificates issued by that CA are
invalid
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

RSA練習問題   050-V66-SERCMS02認定試験   050-V66-SERCMS02認定証   050-V66-SERCMS02

NO.4 What is the standard format for transporting certificates and private keys, as used with export and
import functions?
A. PKCS #7
B. MS CAPI
C. PKCS #11
D. PKCS #12
Answer: D

RSA問題集   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02練習問題   050-V66-SERCMS02認定資格

NO.5 An application may deem a certificate invalid if (Choose three)
A. the certificate has expired
B. the certificate ¯ s i ssue r i s no t tr us t ed
C. a certificate attribute name has been misspelled
D. the certificate is missing a required extension
E. the application ¯ s ad m i n i s tr a t o r has b l ocked t he pub li c key
F. the organization attribute in the certificate ¯ s DN i s no t kno w n t o t he app li ca ti o ¡ ¯s a d m inis t rato
Answer: A,B,D

RSA   050-V66-SERCMS02認定証   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02認定試験   050-V66-SERCMS02

NO.6 If an organization is about to begin deployment of an RSA Certificate manager PKI, what should the
organization do? (Choose two)
A. Smart card enable users browsers
B. Install a fiber Ethernet backbone to handle Web traffic
C. Locate a secure physical location for their RSA Certificate Manager hardware
D. Make sure all e-mail addresses are less than 25 characters for S/MIME
E. Secure the Operating System (OS) based on the OS vendor ¯ s r eco mm enda ti ons
Answer: C,E

RSA過去問   050-V66-SERCMS02認定資格   050-V66-SERCMS02

NO.7 Where can the operation logs used for troubleshooting be found for RSA Certificate Manager and RSA
Registration Manager?
A. /<installed_directory>/logs
B. /<installed_directory>/WebServer/logs
C. /<installed_directory>/LogServer/operations/logs
D. /<installed_directory>/WebServer/operations/logs
Answer: B

RSA練習問題   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02参考書   050-V66-SERCMS02認定証   050-V66-SERCMS02練習問題   050-V66-SERCMS02認証試験

NO.8 RSA Certificate Manager supports enrollment using which protocols? (Choose three)
A. CMP
B. SCEP
C. OCSP
D. DHCP
E. HTTPS
Answer: A,B,E

RSA認定試験   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02認定資格

NO.9 Manually generated CRLs can be configured to include the next update in relative or absolute time
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

RSA練習問題   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02

NO.10 What does the X.509 standard apply to.?
A. contents of a digital certificate
B. strength of S/MIME encryption
C. protocol for connecting through a VPN
D. methods for secure public/private key storage
Answer: A

RSA   050-V66-SERCMS02問題集   050-V66-SERCMS02認定資格   050-V66-SERCMS02   050-V66-SERCMS02認定資格

IT-Passports.comの050-V66-SERCMS02問題集を利用してみたらどうですか。この問題集は最近更新されたもので、実際試験で出題される可能性がある問題をすべて含んでいて、あなたが一回で成功することを保証できますから。この問題集は信じられないほどの良い成果を見せます。試験に失敗すればIT-Passports.comは全額返金のことができますから、ご安心に問題集を利用してください。IT-Passports.comの050-V66-SERCMS02試験参考書できっとあなたが望ましい成功を取られます。

RSAの050-SEPRODLP-01の試験問題集が登場します

最近、IT-Passports.comはIT認定試験に属するいろいろな試験に関連する最新版の050-SEPRODLP-01問題集を提供し始めました。例えば050-SEPRODLP-01日本語問題集などいろいろあります。これらの試験問題集は最新の050-SEPRODLP-01試験のシラバスに従って作成されたものです。試験について最新の情報を伝えられます。試験のシラバスがどのような変更をしたのか、試験に出る可能性がある新しい種類の問題について、これらの最新版の問題集には全部含まれています。ですから、IT認証試験を受験したいなら、IT-Passports.comの050-SEPRODLP-01問題集を利用したほうがいいです。なぜなら、これはあなたがよりよく試験の準備をすることができる最高の方法ですから。

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試験番号:050-SEPRODLP-01問題集
試験科目:RSA 「RSA Certified SE Professional in Data Loss Protection」
問題と解答:全70問

IT-Passports.comは100%の合格率を保証するだけでなく、1年間の無料なオンラインの更新を提供しております。最新の資源と最新の動態が第一時間にお客様に知らせいたします。何の問題があったらお気軽に聞いてください。

IT-Passports.comが提供した対応性の訓練問題をテストにして初めてRSAの050-SEPRODLP-01認定試験に参加する受験者の最もよいな選択でございます。真実試験問題が似てるのを確保することができて一回合格するのは目標にしています。もし試験に失敗したら、弊社が全額で返金いたします。

購入前にお試し,私たちの試験の質問と回答のいずれかの無料サンプルをダウンロード:http://www.it-passports.com/050-SEPRODLP-01.html

NO.1 What is the name of the log file that is stored in the /temp directory once a RSA DLP installation has
completed, which provides a summary of the installation?
A.Install.log
B.Config.log
C.Messages.log
D.RSA DLPInstall.log
Answer: D

RSA   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01認定証   050-SEPRODLP-01練習問題

NO.2 What requirement do you need to meet if you choose to create a Sample RSA DLP Site during the
installation process?
A.You must enable FIPS encryption on the machine
B.You must have at least 128 GB of RAM available on the machine
C.You must have at least 2 TB of storage available on the machine
D.The Enterprise Manager and Enterprise Coordinator must be installed on the same machine
Answer: D

RSA   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01認定証   050-SEPRODLP-01

NO.3 Which RSA DLP deployment requires the use of the Enterprise Coordinator?
A.RSA DLP Network
B.RSA DLP Integrator
C.RSA DLP Datacenter
D.RSA DLP Enterprise Edition
Answer: C

RSA   050-SEPRODLP-01問題集   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01認証試験

NO.4 Which security permission does the Domain Admin user require when installing the Enterprise
Manager?
A.Root
B.System admin
C.Run as a service
D.Run as an admin
Answer: C

RSA認定証   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01参考書   050-SEPRODLP-01認証試験   050-SEPRODLP-01認定証

NO.5 What is the default selection for components to include when installing the Enterprise Manager
software?
A.Enterprise Manager only
B.Enterprise Coordinator only
C.Enterprise Manager and Enterprise Coordinator
D.No components are selected by default
Answer: C

RSA練習問題   050-SEPRODLP-01認定証   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01問題集

NO.6 During the installation of RSA DLP, when should you specify a port number to connect to the database
server for RSA DLP?
A.Never
B.Always
C.Only if you require SMTP communication to the server
D.Only if the database administrator provides a static port number to connect to the database
Answer: C

RSA認定試験   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01

NO.7 Which database software is used by the RSA DLP Enterprise Manager to store configuration files,
incidents and events?
A.Oracle
B.Sybase
C.Microsoft SQL Server
D.RSA Proprietary
Answer: C

RSA参考書   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01

NO.8 What is the default login name used to access the Enterprise Manager?
A.Root
B.Admin
C.System
D.Administrator
Answer: B

RSA認証試験   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01認定資格

NO.9 What is the minimum length for the Enterprise Manager admin account password?
A.6 characters
B.8 characters
C.10 characters
D.There is no minimum requirement
Answer: A

RSA認定証   050-SEPRODLP-01認定証   050-SEPRODLP-01過去問   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01認定試験

NO.10 What are the four types of RSA DLP Network Appliances?
A.Controller, Sensor, ICAP Server, and Monitor
B.ICAP Server, Sensor, Monitor, and Interceptor
C.Sensor, ICAP Server, Investigator, and Controller
D.Controller, Interceptor, Sensor, and ICAP Server
Answer: D

RSA練習問題   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01問題集   050-SEPRODLP-01   050-SEPRODLP-01

難しい050-SEPRODLP-01認定試験に合格したいなら、試験の準備をするときに関連する参考書を使わないとダメです。自分に合っている優秀な参考資料がほしいとしたら、一番来るべき場所はIT-Passports.comです。IT-Passports.comの知名度が高くて、IT認定試験に関連するいろいろな優秀な問題集を持っています。それに、すべての050-SEPRODLP-01試験問題集に対する無料なdemoがあります。IT-Passports.comの050-SEPRODLP-01問題集があなたに適するかどうかを確認したいなら、まず問題集のデモをダウンロードして体験してください。

気楽にISACA CISA認定試験に受かるコツを知りたいのか

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試験番号:CISA問題集
試験科目:ISACA 「Isaca CISA 」
問題と解答:全1180問

IT-Passports.comは優れたIT情報のソースを提供するサイトです。IT-Passports.comで、あなたの試験のためのテクニックと勉強資料を見つけることができます。IT-Passports.comのISACAのCISA試験トレーニング資料は豊富な知識と経験を持っているIT専門家に研究された成果で、正確度がとても高いです。IT-Passports.comに会ったら、最高のトレーニング資料を見つけました。IT-Passports.comのISACAのCISA試験トレーニング資料を持っていたら、試験に対する充分の準備がありますから、安心に利用したください。

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購入前にお試し,私たちの試験の質問と回答のいずれかの無料サンプルをダウンロード:http://www.it-passports.com/CISA.html

NO.1 IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation
languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using
4GLs?
A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities
B. Complex programming language subsets
C. Lack of portability across operating systems
D. Inability to perform data intensive operations
Answer: D

ISACA認定資格   CISA   CISA   CISA
Explanation:
4.Ls are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly for graphic user
interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators.
Incorrect answers:
A, B. Screen/report design facilities are one of the main advantages of 4GLs, and 4GLs have simple
programming language subsets.
C. Portability is also one of the main advantages of 4GLs.

NO.2 The use of a GANTT chart can:
A. aid in scheduling project tasks.
B. determine project checkpoints.
C. ensure documentation standards.
D. direct the post-implementation review.
Answer: A

ISACA練習問題   CISA   CISA
Explanation:
A GANTT chart is used in project control. It may aid in the identification of needed checkpoints but its
primary use is in scheduling. It will not ensure the completion of documentation nor will it provide direction
for the post-implementation review.

NO.3 A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:
A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.
B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.
C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.
D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users.
Answer: B

ISACA   CISA認証試験   CISA   CISA認定試験   CISA練習問題
Explanation:
A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of
a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers
access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data
resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a
firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to
forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network
requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer
separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network
resources.

NO.4 Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to
determine if the source and object versions are the same?
A. A substantive test of program library controls
B. A compliance test of program library controls
C. A compliance test of the program compiler controls
D. A substantive test of the program compiler controls
Answer: B

ISACA認定資格   CISA過去問   CISA認定試験
Explanation:
A compliance test determines if controls are operating as designed and are being applied in a manner that
complies with management policies and procedures. For example, if the IS auditor is concerned whether
program library controls are working properly, the IS auditor might select a sample of programs to
determine if the source and object versions are the same. In other words, the broad objective of any
compliance test is to provide auditors with reasonable assurance that a particular control on which the
auditor plans to rely is operating as the auditor perceived it in the preliminary evaluation.

NO.5 A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through the
Internet is called a:
A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature.
Answer: C

ISACA   CISA認証試験   CISA   CISA
Explanation:
A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a sender
through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another string of bits, a
digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally represents a handwritten
signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on an electronic pen pad, connected
to the system.

NO.6 A data administrator is responsible for: A. maintaining database system software.
B. defining data elements, data names and their relationship.
C. developing physical database structures.
D. developing data dictionary system software.
Answer: B

ISACA認定試験   CISA   CISA参考書   CISA   CISA参考書   CISA認定証
Explanation:
A data administrator is responsible for defining data elements, data names and their relationship. Choices
A, C and D are functions of a database administrator (DBA)

NO.7 Which of the following would be the BEST method for ensuring that critical fields in a master record
have been updated properly?
A. Field checks
B. Control totals
C. Reasonableness checks
D. A before-and-after maintenance report
Answer: D

ISACA   CISA認定証   CISA   CISA   CISA
Explanation:
A before-and-after maintenance report is the best answer because a visual review would provide the most
positive verification that updating was proper.

NO.8 A database administrator is responsible for:
A. defining data ownership.
B. establishing operational standards for the data dictionary.
C. creating the logical and physical database.
D. establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security.
Answer: C

ISACA問題集   CISA   CISA   CISA認定証
Explanation:
A database administrator is responsible for creating and controlling the logical and physical database.
Defining data ownership resides with the head of the user department or top management if the data is
common to the organization. IS management and the data administrator are responsible for establishing
operational standards for the data dictionary. Establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and
security in line with the corporate security policy is a function of the security administrator.

NO.9 Which of the following data validation edits is effective in detecting transposition and transcription
errors?
A. Range check
B. Check digit
C. Validity check
D. Duplicate check
Answer: B

ISACA   CISA   CISA練習問題   CISA認定資格   CISA参考書   CISA認定資格
Explanation:
A check digit is a numeric value that is calculated mathematically and is appended to data to
ensure that the original data have not been altered or an incorrect, but valid, value substituted.
This control is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors.
Incorrect answers:
A. A range check is checking data that matches a predetermined range of values.
C. A validity check is programmed checking of the data validity in accordance with predetermined criteria.
D. In a duplicate check, new or fresh transactions are matched to those previously entered to ensure that
they are not already in the system.

NO.10 Which of the following is a telecommunication device that translates data from digital form to analog
form and back to digital?
A. Multiplexer
B. Modem
C. Protocol converter
D. Concentrator
Answer: B

ISACA練習問題   CISA参考書   CISA   CISA認証試験
Explanation:
A modem is a device that translates data from digital to analog and back to digital.

NO.11 Which of the following network configuration options contains a direct link between any two host
machines?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Completely connected (mesh)
Answer: D

ISACA   CISA参考書   CISA認定資格
Explanation:
A completely connected mesh configuration creates a direct link between any two host machines.
Incorrect answers:
A. A bus configuration links all stations along one transmission line.
B. A ring configuration forms a circle, and all stations are attached to a point on the transmission circle.
D. In a star configuration each station is linked directly to a main hub.

NO.12 Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?
A. Blackbox test
B. Desk checking
C. Structured walk-through
D. Design and code
Answer: A

ISACA認定試験   CISA参考書   CISA   CISA過去問   CISA
Explanation:
A blackbox test is a dynamic analysis tool for testing software modules. During the testing of software
modules a blackbox test works first in a cohesive manner as one single unit/entity, consisting of numerous
modules and second, with the user data that flows across software modules. In some cases, this even
drives the software behavior.
Incorrect answers:
In choices B, C and D, the software (design or code) remains static and somebody simply closely
examines it by applying his/her mind, without actually activating the software. Hence, these cannot be
referred to as dynamic analysis tools.

NO.13 Which of the following systems-based approaches would a financial processing company employ to
monitor spending patterns to identify abnormal patterns and report them?
A. A neural network
B. Database management software
C. Management information systems
D. Computer assisted audit techniques
Answer: A Explanation:
A neural network will monitor and learn patterns, reporting exceptions for investigation. Incorrect answers:
B. Database management software is a method of storing and retrieving data.
C. Management information systems provide management statistics but do not normally have a
monitoring and detection function.
D. Computer-assisted audit techniques detect specific situations, but are not intended to learn patterns
and detect abnormalities.

NO.14 Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network
control, format conversion and message handling tasks?
A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor
Answer: D

ISACA参考書   CISA   CISA   CISA認定試験   CISA認定証
Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a central computer to
relieve the central computer.

NO.15 Which of the following types of data validation editing checks is used to determine if a field contains
data, and not zeros or blanks?
A. Check digit
B. Existence check
C. Completeness check
D. Reasonableness check
Answer: C

ISACA認定資格   CISA   CISA   CISA   CISA練習問題
Explanation:
A completeness check is used to determine if a field contains data and not zeros or blanks. Incorrect
answers:
A. A check digit is a digit calculated mathematically to ensure original data was not altered.
B. An existence check also checks entered data for agreement to predetermined criteria.
D. A reasonableness check matches input to predetermined reasonable limits or occurrence rates.

NO.16 A hub is a device that connects:
A. two LANs using different protocols.
B. a LAN with a WAN.
C. a LAN with a metropolitan area network (MAN).
D. two segments of a single LAN.
Answer: D

ISACA   CISA認定資格   CISA参考書   CISA
Explanation:
A hub is a device that connects two segments of a single LAN. A hub is a repeater. It provides transparent
connectivity to users on all segments of the same LAN. It is a level 1 device. Incorrect answers:
A. A bridge operates at level 2 of the OSI layer and is used to connect two LANs using different protocols
(e.g., joining an ethernet and token network) to form a logical network.
B. A gateway, which is a level 7 device, is used to connect a LAN to a WAN.
C. A LAN is connected with a MAN using a router, which operates in the network layer.

NO.17 Which of the following is a benefit of using callback devices?
A. Provide an audit trail
B. Can be used in a switchboard environment
C. Permit unlimited user mobility
D. Allow call forwarding
Answer: A

ISACA問題集   CISA練習問題   CISA過去問   CISA   CISA認定試験
Explanation:
A callback feature hooks into the access control software and logs all authorized and unauthorized access
attempts, permitting the follow-up and further review of potential breaches. Call forwarding (choice D) is a
means of potentially bypassing callback control. By dialing through an authorized phone number from an
unauthorized phone number, a perpetrator can gain computer access. This vulnerability can be controlled
through callback systems that are available.

NO.18 To affix a digital signature to a message, the sender must first create a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against:
A. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's private key.
B. any arbitrary part of the message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's
private key.
C. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message using the sender's private key.
D. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message along with the message digest using the
sender's private key.
Answer: A

ISACA過去問   CISA参考書   CISA参考書   CISA   CISA参考書
Explanation:
A digital signature is a cryptographic method that ensures data integrity, authentication of the message,
and non-repudiation. To ensure these, the sender first creates a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message and thereafter enciphers the message digest
using the sender's private key. A message digest is created by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm
against the entire message not on any arbitrary part of the message. After creating the message digest,
only the message digest is enciphered using the sender's private key, not the message.

NO.19 In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface.
Answer: A

ISACA認定資格   CISA認定証   CISA
Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading partners
and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:
B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner's proprietary
format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs
data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the communications
handler.

NO.20 Which of the following translates e-mail formats from one network to another so that the message can
travel through all the networks?
A. Gateway
B. Protocol converter
C. Front-end communication processor
D. Concentrator/multiplexor
Answer: A

ISACA   CISA   CISA認証試験   CISA   CISA
Explanation:
A gateway performs the job of translating e-mail formats from one network to another so messages can
make their way through all the networks.
Incorrect answers:
B. A protocol converter is a hardware device that converts between two different types of transmissions,
such as asynchronous and synchronous transmissions.
C. A front-end communication processor connects all network communication lines to a central computer
to relieve the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling
tasks.
D. A concentrator/multiplexor is a device used for combining several lower-speed channels into a
higher-speed channel.

NO.21 Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a business process reengineering (BPR) project?
A. An increased number of people using technology
B. Significant cost savings, through a reduction in the complexity of information technology
C. A weaker organizational structures and less accountability
D. Increased information protection (IP) risk will increase
Answer: A

ISACA   CISA問題集   CISA   CISA
Explanation:
A BPR project more often leads to an increased number of people using technology, and this would be a
cause for concern. Incorrect answers:
B. As BPR is often technology oriented, and this technology is usually more complex and volatile than in
the past, cost savings do not often materialize in this area.
D. There is no reason for IP to conflict with a BPR project, unless the project is not run properly.

NO.22 A number of system failures are occurring when corrections to previously detected errors are
resubmitted for acceptance testing. This would indicate that the maintenance team is probably not
adequately performing which of the following types of testing?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Design walk-throughs
D. Configuration management
Answer: B

ISACA   CISA   CISA   CISA   CISA問題集
Explanation:
A common system maintenance problem is that errors are often corrected quickly (especially when
deadlines are tight) , units are tested by the programmer, and then transferred to the acceptance test area.
This often results in system problems that should have been detected during integration or system testing.
Integration testing aims at ensuring that the major components of the system interface correctly.

NO.23 Structured programming is BEST described as a technique that:
A. provides knowledge of program functions to other programmers via peer reviews.
B. reduces the maintenance time of programs by the use of small-scale program modules.
C. makes the readable coding reflect as closely as possible the dynamic execution of the program.
D. controls the coding and testing of the high-level functions of the program in the development process.
Answer: B

ISACA   CISA参考書   CISA   CISA練習問題   CISA認定試験   CISA
Explanation:
A characteristic of structured programming is smaller, workable units. Structured programming has
evolved because smaller, workable units are easier to maintain. Structured programming is a style of
programming which restricts the kinds of control structures. This limitation is not crippling. Any program
can be written with allowed control structures. Structured programming is sometimes referred to as
go-to-less programming, since a go-to statement is not allowed. This is perhaps the most well known
restriction of the style, since go-to statements were common at the time structured programming was
becoming more popular. Statement labels also become unnecessary, except in languages where
subroutines are identified by labels.

NO.24 Which of the following BEST describes the necessary documentation for an enterprise product
reengineering (EPR) software installation?
A. Specific developments only
B. Business requirements only
C. All phases of the installation must be documented
D. No need to develop a customer specific documentation
Answer: C

ISACA   CISA認定資格   CISA   CISA過去問
Explanation:
A global enterprise product reengineering (EPR) software package can be applied to a business to
replace, simplify and improve the quality of IS processing. Documentation is intended to help understand
how, why and which solutions that have been selected and implemented, and therefore must be specific
to the project. Documentation is also intended to support quality assurance and must be comprehensive.

NO.25 A LAN administrator normally would be restricted from:
A. having end-user responsibilities.
B. reporting to the end-user manager.
C. having programming responsibilities.
D. being responsible for LAN security administration.
Answer: C

ISACA認定証   CISA   CISA認定資格   CISA認定試験   CISA   CISA
Explanation:
A LAN administrator should not have programming responsibilities but may have end- user
responsibilities. The LAN administrator may report to the director of the IPF or, in a decentralized
operation, to the end-user manager. In small organizations, the LAN administrator also may be
responsible for security administration over the LAN.

NO.26 A call-back system requires that a user with an id and password call a remote server through a dial-up
line, then the server disconnects and: A. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and
password using a telephone number from its database.
B. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number provided
by the user during this connection.
C. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using its database.
D. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using the sender's database.
Answer: A

ISACA   CISA参考書   CISA過去問   CISA
Explanation:
A call-back system in a net centric environment would mean that a user with an id and password calls a
remote server through a dial-up line first, and then the server disconnects and dials back to the user
machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database. Although the
server can depend upon its own database, it cannot know the authenticity of the dialer when the user dials
again. The server cannot depend upon the sender's database to dial back as the same could be
manipulated.

NO.27 Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a
storage and forward device?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Answer: B

ISACA参考書   CISA   CISA   CISA   CISA
Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an ethernet and token
network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device. Bridges
operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the media access control header of a data packet.
Incorrect answers:
A. Routers are switching devices that operate at the OSI network layer by examining network addresses
(i.e., routing information encoded in an IP packet). The router, by examining the IP address, can make
intelligent decisions in directing the packet to its destination.
C. Repeaters amplify transmission signals to reach remote devices by taking a signal from a LAN,
reconditioning and retiming it, and sending it to another. This functionality is hardware encoded and
occurs at the OSI physical layer.
D. Gateways provide access paths to foreign networks.

NO.28 The MOST significant level of effort for business continuity planning (BCP) generally is required during
the:
A. testing stage.
B. evaluation stage.
C. maintenance stage.
D. early stages of planning.
Answer: D

ISACA   CISA練習問題   CISA問題集   CISA認定証   CISA練習問題
Explanation:
Company.com in the early stages of a BCP will incur the most significant level of program development
effort, which will level out as the BCP moves into maintenance, testing and evaluation stages. It is during
the planning stage that an IS auditor will play an important role in obtaining senior management's
commitment to resources and assignment of BCP responsibilities.

NO.29 An IS auditor reviewing the key roles and responsibilities of the database administrator (DBA) is
LEAST likely to expect the job description of the DBA to include:
A. defining the conceptual schema.
B. defining security and integrity checks.
C. liaising with users in developing data model.
D. mapping data model with the internal schema.
Answer: D Explanation:
A DBA only in rare instances should be mapping data elements from the data model to the internal
schema (physical data storage definitions). To do so would eliminate data independence for application
systems. Mapping of the data model occurs with the conceptual schema since the conceptual schema
represents the enterprisewide view of data within an organization and is the basis for deriving an end-user
department data model.

NO.30 An offsite information processing facility having electrical wiring, air conditioning and flooring, but no
computer or communications equipment is a:
A. cold site.
B. warm site.
C. dial-up site.
D. duplicate processing facility.
Answer: A

ISACA認定証   CISA   CISA   CISA
Explanation:
A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any components at the site in advance of the
need.
Incorrect answers:
B. A warm site is an offsite backup facility that is configured partially with network connections and
selected peripheral equipment, such as disk and tape units, controllers and CPUs, to operate an
information processing facility.
D. A duplicate information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery site that can back up
critical applications.

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試験番号:ASC-012問題集
試験科目:Symantec 「ASC High Availablity Assessment」
問題と解答:全75問

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NO.1 Which of the following tools should you primarily use to perform pre-installation checks for implementing
VCS or SF/HA 5.1?
A. Common Product Installer (CPI)
B. SORT Installation and Upgrade Assessment
C. VRTS Explorer
D. VCS Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

Symantec認証試験   ASC-012   ASC-012認定証   ASC-012   ASC-012

NO.2 What are the recommended project phases for VCS or SF/HA Implementation Services, in the right
order?
A. Assess, Design, Transform, Operate (ADTO)
B. Design, Installation, Configuration, Testing, Project Close
C. Planning and Design, Installation and Configuration, Testing, Project handover and close
D. Project Initiation and Planning, Design, Implementation and Testing, Operations Handover, Project
Close
Answer: D

Symantec問題集   ASC-012   ASC-012問題集   ASC-012

NO.3 In a 2-node 5.1 Replicated Data Cluster using VVR, which option should be discussed with the
customer?
A. setting the AutoFailover service group attribute to 2
B. using SystemZones for the service groups
C. setting the ClusterFailOverPolicy service group attribute to Manual
D. using Hybrid service groups for the replication service group
Answer: A

Symantec参考書   ASC-012   ASC-012   ASC-012   ASC-012

NO.4 Which two should be captured in the Symantec Design Report Questionnaire for a VCS or SF/HA
Implementation Service? (Select two.)
A.Prerequisites for implementing VCS
B.Details of the physical environment, including details of the servers, O/S networks and storage that will
be deployed in the solution
C.List of VCS agents that will be deployed in the solution, including requirements for custom agents
where applicable
D.List of the service groups, resources and dependencies that are to be configured in the solution
E.Details of the applications to be clustered, including service level objectives
Answer: Pending

Symantec認証試験   ASC-012   ASC-012   ASC-012参考書   ASC-012認証試験   ASC-012問題集

NO.5 A customer has a large high-availability environment comprising of 90 Veritas Cluster Server (VCS)
clusters across 3 sites. Thier business continuity group requires a monthly set of reports showing the
availability and downtime for each service that is clustered. What solution should you recommend?
A. Storage Foundation Manager
B. Veritas Operations Manager
C. Global Cluster Manager
D. VCS webGUI
Answer: B

Symantec問題集   ASC-012認定試験   ASC-012   ASC-012

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試験番号:ST0-116問題集
試験科目:Symantec 「Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 Technical Assessment」
問題と解答:全176問

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NO.1 After installing several new DLP Agents, the Data Loss Prevention administrator discovers that none of
the endpoint agents are appearing on the Agent Overview page. After refreshing the page several times,
and determining that the equipment is powered on and connected to the network, the Agent Overview
page still fails to display the new agents. What is a possible cause for this issue?
A. The DLP Agents need to be added manually through the Symantec Management Platform.
B. The DLP Agents were installed with the incorrect Endpoint server IP address.
C. The assigned Endpoint server needs to be recycled in order to detect the new DLP Agents.
D. The Endpoint Location is set to "Manually" instead of "Automatically" in the Enforce user interface.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-116認定証   ST0-116   ST0-116

NO.2 A company needs to scan all of its file shares on a weekly basis to make sure sensitive data is being
stored correctly. The total volume of data on the file servers is greater than 1 TB . Which approach will
allow the company to quickly scan all of this data on a weekly basis?
A. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to add date filters and
exclude any files created or modified before the initial scan was run
B. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to an incremental scan
type
C. create a separate scan target for each file share and exclude files accessed before the start of each
scan
D. run an initial complete scan of all file shares, create a summary report of all incidents created by the
scan, then run weekly scans and compare incidents from weekly scans to incidents from the complete
scan
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-116   ST0-116   ST0-116

NO.3 Which two remediation actions are available for Network Protect? (Select two.)
A. Copy
B. Move
C. Block
D. Rename
E. Quarantine
Answer: A, E

Symantec認定試験   ST0-116参考書   ST0-116   ST0-116認定試験   ST0-116認証試験

NO.4 What is a feature of keyword proximity matching?
A. It will match on whole keywords only.
B. It has a maximum distance between keywords of 99.
C. It only matches on message body.
D. It evaluates each keyword pair independently.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The database is full and the Incident Persister is unable to process incidents. Which two file types
could be present in Vontu/protect/incidents? (Select two.)
A. .idx
B. .edc
C. .idc
D. .inc
E. .bad
Answer: C, E

Symantec   ST0-116   ST0-116   ST0-116練習問題   ST0-116   ST0-116認定試験

NO.6 Where should the Network Discover detection server be placed in a corporate network architecture?
A. inside the DMZ
B. on the same virtual LAN as the proxy server
C. inside the corporate network
D. on the same switch as the Oracle database server
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-116   ST0-116   ST0-116   ST0-116

NO.7 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

Symantec認定証   ST0-116練習問題   ST0-116過去問   ST0-116

NO.8 Which product provides support for the Citrix XenApp virtualization platform?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Discover
C. Network Protect
D. Network Prevent
Answer: A

Symantec認証試験   ST0-116認定証   ST0-116

NO.9 A Data Loss Prevention administrator notices that several errors occurred during a Network Discover
scan. Which report can the administrator use to determine exactly which errors occurred and when?
A. Discover Incident report sorted by target name and scan
B. Full Activity report for that particular scan
C. Server Event report from Server Overview
D. Full Statistics report for that particular scan
Answer: B

Symantec問題集   ST0-116   ST0-116   ST0-116

NO.10 To manually troubleshoot DLP Agent issues, the database and log viewer tools must be executed in
which location?
A. in the same location as the dcs.ead file location
B. in the same location as the cg.ead file location
C. in the same location as the ks.ead file location
D. in the same location as the is.ead file location
Answer: C

Symantec認定資格   ST0-116   ST0-116問題集

NO.11 Which two policy management actions can result in a reduced number of incidents for a given traffic
flow? (Select two.)
A. adding additional component matching to the rule
B. adding data owner exceptions
C. deploying to additional detection servers
D. increasing condition match count
E. adding additional severities
Answer: B, D

Symantec参考書   ST0-116   ST0-116

NO.12 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B, D

Symantec   ST0-116   ST0-116練習問題   ST0-116認定資格   ST0-116

NO.13 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-116認定試験   ST0-116認証試験   ST0-116問題集

NO.14 A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized
by department. What must be populated to generate this report?
A. remediation attributes
B. sender correlations
C. status groups
D. custom attributes
Answer: D

Symantec認証試験   ST0-116   ST0-116過去問   ST0-116練習問題   ST0-116認証試験   ST0-116参考書

NO.15 Which two functions of the communications architecture ensure that the system will automatically
recover if a network connectivity failure occurs between the detection servers and the Enforce Server?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle database backup
B. detection server autonomous monitoring
C. Enforce Server offline alert notification
D. detection server incident queuing
E. detection server alert archiving
Answer: B, D

Symantec認定試験   ST0-116   ST0-116過去問   ST0-116

NO.16 A user is unable to log in as sysadmin. The Data Loss Prevention system is configured to use Active
Directory authentication. The user is a member of two roles, sysadmin and remediator. How should the
user log in to the user interface in the sysadmin role?
A. sysadmin\username@domain
B. sysadmin\username
C. domain\username
D. sysadmin\username\domain
Answer: B

Symantec認証試験   ST0-116   ST0-116   ST0-116認定資格   ST0-116

NO.17 Which DLP Agent task is unique to the Symantec Management Platform and is unavailable through
the Enforce console?
A. Change Endpoint server
B. Restart agent
C. Pull agent logs
D. Set log level
Answer: D

Symantec認証試験   ST0-116   ST0-116問題集

NO.18 Which Network Discover option is used to determine whether confidential data exists without having to
scan the entire target?
A. Byte Throttling
B. File Throttling
C. Match Thresholds
D. Inventory Mode Scanning
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-116   ST0-116認定証

NO.19 A role is configured for XML export and a user executes the export XML incident action. What must be
done before history information is included in the export?
A. A remediator must take an action on the incident.
B. History must be enabled as a tab or panel in the incident snapshot layout.
C. Incident history must be enabled in the user's role.
D. The manager.properties must be configured for XML export.
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-116練習問題   ST0-116

NO.20 An administrator is running a Discover Scanner target scan and the scanner is unable to
communicate back to the Discover Server. Where will the files be stored.?
A. Discover Server incoming folder
B. scanner's outgoing folder
C. scanner's incoming folder
D. Enforce incident persister
Answer: B

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試験番号:250-402問題集
試験科目:Symantec 「Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1」
問題と解答:全133問

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NO.1 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire 2099" has
been installed on company desktops. The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the
company standard browser toolbar and needs to be removed immediately. The administrator has also
been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that they can receive a private email
about the situation. Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an application. B.Inventory
Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application is executed.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

Symantec   250-402   250-402参考書

NO.2 A patch administrator is preparing to deploy new patches. The administrator needs to avoid applying
Microsoft updates to the wrong operating systems. How should the administrator deploy the patches?
A. by creating a Software Update policy to distribute the updates
B. by configuring the Import Patch Data for Microsoft task and only including applicable updates
C. by staging the update for each operating system in the test environment
D. by only applying updates to the Target with applicable computers when creating a Software Update
policy
Answer: A

Symantec   250-402認定資格   250-402   250-402

NO.3 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints across a
company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification Server is
slower during the inventory scan times. Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to
reduce the processing impact on the Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weekly schedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

Symantec   250-402参考書   250-402   250-402   250-402認定証

NO.4 A group of computers are received from a computer manufacturer with a list of corresponding MAC
addresses. To facilitate the imaging of the computers, the list is modified and then imported to
Deployment Solution, creating new computer accounts. In a lab, all computers are started and booted into
WinPE automation. In the console, a job is assigned to each computer appropriate to its hardware; but the
computers never get the tasks or run the jobs. What is a likely reason for this behavior?
A. The number of concurrent tasks assigned for imaging is overwhelming the SQL server.
B. The computer records in the database are missing necessary key information to properly identify the
computers.
C. The network addresses assigned to the computers in the lab are outside the SBS configured ranges.
D. New computers must first check in and be given a GUID in the console before being assigned a name
and corresponding jobs or tasks.
Answer: B

Symantec参考書   250-402   250-402認定証   250-402認定試験   250-402問題集

NO.5 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the Managed
Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new application. What
should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

Symantec認定試験   250-402認証試験   250-402練習問題   250-402認定資格   250-402過去問

NO.6 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog. There is a duplicate for a
software resource. The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and
selected the option to merge duplicate resources. What will happen to the duplicate entries in the
Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate is deleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the newest
timestamp is deleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry with the
oldest timestamp is deleted.
Answer: B

Symantec   250-402   250-402   250-402認証試験

NO.7 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight Alert
Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running. Which
policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

Symantec   250-402練習問題   250-402参考書   250-402練習問題

NO.8 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application. During deployment, the administrator
determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be changed without modifying the MSI. The
administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package. Which policies would
be affected when the default install command line of a software package is modified in the Software
Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

Symantec参考書   250-402   250-402練習問題   250-402問題集   250-402認定試験   250-402参考書

NO.9 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application from
running on company computers. Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented
from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

Symantec   250-402過去問   250-402認定証   250-402

NO.10 A software was virtualized during a Managed Software Delivery installation. Which method must be
used to manage the layer?
A. Virtual Composer task
B. Software Virtualization Command task
C. Package Delivery task
D. Quick Delivery task
Answer: B

Symantec過去問   250-402過去問   250-402   250-402練習問題

NO.11 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management.? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

Symantec   250-402認定試験   250-402問題集   250-402認定資格   250-402

NO.12 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

Symantec認定資格   250-402   250-402認定資格   250-402

NO.13 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1? (Select two.)
A. Service Desk
B. CMDB Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Wise Package Studio Professional
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: C,E

Symantec参考書   250-402認定資格   250-402   250-402   250-402練習問題

NO.14 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be updated.
Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have been updated,
the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the database. However,
after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an old date instead
of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because several
policies were modified at the same time.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though the
agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

Symantec   250-402認証試験   250-402参考書

NO.15 An administrator needs to use the Deployment Solution task listed below in a job that will be used to
capture an image of a computer running Windows XP. Prepare for Image capture Which two configuration
steps must be completed before the task can be created? (Select two.)
A. enable PXE
B. create a system configuration
C. create a sysprep token
D. upload the applicable deploy.cab file
E. add an OS license key
Answer: D,E

Symantec   250-402   250-402   250-402

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試験番号:ST0-153問題集
試験科目:Symantec 「Symantec PGP Universal Server 3.2 Technical Assessment」
問題と解答:全67問

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NO.1 How do PGP Universal Server clusters resolve conflicts where a user account is being changed on two
or more servers at the same time?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:D

Symantec参考書   ST0-153認証試験   ST0-153   ST0-153

NO.2 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do?A user who is not a
PGP Desktop user accesses a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:D

Symantec   ST0-153   ST0-153認証試験   ST0-153

NO.3 How do the encrypt and sign buttons interact with policy?
A.They bypass it
B.They do not bypass it, they use the Standalone chain
C.They only work when the server is online and the Outbound policy rule has been enabled
D.None of the above are true
Answer:D

Symantec認定試験   ST0-153練習問題   ST0-153   ST0-153認証試験   ST0-153過去問
8.How do you create an ADK?
A.It is automatically created and added to the server upon installation
B.You purchase one from PGP Corporation
C.From the Organization Keys tab
D.From PGP Desktop
Answer:D

Symantec   ST0-153参考書   ST0-153練習問題   ST0-153   ST0-153参考書
9.How does a cluster know if a server needs to be updated?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:A

Symantec   ST0-153認定資格   ST0-153   ST0-153   ST0-153認定試験
10.How does the “Prefer Notes native encoding over PGP encoding” feature work?
A.External emails are PGP encrypted but internal ones are Notes encrypted
B.Internal emails are PGP encrypted but external ones are Notes encrypted
C.All emails are Notes encrypted
D.The user is prompted to choose their encryption type
Answer:A

Symantec問題集   ST0-153問題集   ST0-153練習問題   ST0-153過去問
11.How does Web Messenger replication work?
A.There is no replication
B.Messages can be replicated to all servers or a number of servers or not replicated
C.Messages are stored on all servers or not replicated
D.Messages can only be replicated to a number of servers or not replicated
E.Messages are always replicated on all servers unless it is a DMZ server
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-153   ST0-153
12.How is the private key of the ADK protected?
A.The private key should be split into several shares and given to designated users.
B.The ADK keypair is stored on the server
C.The private key is protected by the Ignition Key
D.The ADK doesn't have a private key
Answer:A

Symantec認定証   ST0-153   ST0-153問題集   ST0-153   ST0-153   ST0-153
13.How many backups are kept by default?
A.7
B.30
C.5
D.5, not configurable
Answer:C

Symantec   ST0-153   ST0-153問題集   ST0-153参考書   ST0-153
14.If a user belongs to 3 different groups, which one will give this user policy?
A.The first one created on the server if there is no order specified
B.The Excluded group if he belongs to it
C.Wherever LDAP puts them first
D.The Everyone group
Answer:B

Symantec   ST0-153練習問題   ST0-153認定証   ST0-153
15.If Alice has forgotten the passphrase for her encrypted boot volume, what can her administrator do?
A.Use the WDE-ADMIN group access to authenticate at BootGuard and change the passphrase
B.Check the box for "Automatically decrypt boot disk upon power on" in Consumer Policy
C.Use the Account lockout mechanism to reset her passphrase
D.Use the Whole Disk Recovery Token
E.Reset her passphrase in PGP Universal Server
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-153   ST0-153   ST0-153   ST0-153認定資格
16.A user has never dealt with another employee but is able to send them secure email because they
have a PGP Universal Server.This is possible because of:
A.This is an example of the SMIME Web of Trust
B.Manual verification
C.This is not possible with PGP products
D.A trust relationship
Answer:D

Symantec   ST0-153認定資格   ST0-153認証試験   ST0-153過去問   ST0-153
18.If you did not specify network settings during the installation process, which of the following IP
addresses would initially be assigned to your PGP Universal Server?
A.172.16.10.100/24
B.192.168.1.100/24
C.10.1.1.100/24
D.none of the above
Answer:B

Symantec   ST0-153   ST0-153参考書   ST0-153認証試験
19.If you had to manually type in your PGP Universal Server address to administer it, what would it be?
A.http://Key.domain:443
B.https://Key.domain:9000
C.https://Keys.domain
D.https://Keys.domain:9000
Answer:D

Symantec認定資格   ST0-153練習問題   ST0-153過去問
20.If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A.The file is decrypted
B.The file remains encrypted
C.The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D.If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E.It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

Symantec過去問   ST0-153   ST0-153   ST0-153認証試験   ST0-153

NO.4 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do? A user who is not
a PGP NetShare user but is a PGP Desktop user attempts to access a PGP NetShare encrypted folder...
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:B

Symantec認証試験   ST0-153   ST0-153   ST0-153

NO.5 How did you add Internal Users to the PGP Universal Server?
A.Receiving email
B.Installing the server
C.Sending email
D.All of the above
Answer:C

Symantec   ST0-153   ST0-153   ST0-153問題集

NO.6 How could I verify user keys for a partner using SMIME?
A.By placing the partner's CA in the list of Trusted Keys
B.By adding an Organization Certificate to my PGP Universal Server
C.By splitting my ADK
D.PGP Universal Server automatically trusts all non-PGP SMIME servers
Answer:A

Symantec認定証   ST0-153   ST0-153問題集

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